I am still confused about the purpose of IPv4 mapped IPv6 addresses and would like some enlightenment.
I have a server client pair of machines and I intend to connect them via Openvpn. The server has an IPv6 address, while the client an IPv4 only address. When I ping the client's IPv4 mapped IPv6 address, there is a response. However, when I configured the client to connect to the server's IPv6 address, I was unable to connect. I have included the client's IPv4 mapped IPv6 address into the Openvpn client configuration file -- local
Let's switch the pair. Now, the server has an IPv4 address (with a IPv4 mapped IPv6 address) and the client as an IPv6 address. I am also unable to establish an Openvpn connection by connecting to the server's IPv4 mapped IPv6 address.
In this case, What good is here when it comes to Openvpn connections while IPv4 mapped IPv6 address?
For instance, I have an IPv4 only machine with IP 188.8.131.52 and it has an IPv4 mapped IPv6 address of ::ffff:7e0a:d02. I have another IPv6 machine with IP 2a04::dead:beef:5802:A. How am I able to connect both of them via Openvpn? I cannot seem to connect the IPv6 address of both machines together.