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Incoming IP addresses still processed even if all ports closed?

Mr. Question

5/12/23, 5:05 PM

Does a computer process IP addresses of incoming connections even if all of its ports are closed?

To be precise:
(1) computer = primarily operating system of server or router, possibly raw hardware circuits
(2) process = absolutely any/every possible kind of processing at all, the actual processing of the IP address

For example, is it necessary for a computer to process the IP address of the incoming connection in order to reject/deny/drop that connection? What are the exact technical ways a computer process the IP address of an incoming connection even if all of its ports are closed? What would be needed to make a computer not process IP addresses of incoming connections?

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vidarlo

5/12/23, 5:25 PM

This is probably more appropriate at [Law SE](https://law.stackexchange.com/), because it entirely hinges on the definition of PII and processing.

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Mr. Question

5/12/23, 5:35 PM

@vidarlo First we need to know if any kind of software/hardware processing is performed at all. I assume it is but want to be sure. Does my question really deserve downvotes?

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vidarlo

5/12/23, 5:42 PM

Unless you define processing in technical terms the question is meaningless. Does it constitute processing that a piece of information is stored in buffers? Does it constitute processing if it ever hits disks? What about logs? What about routers? They make routing decisions using the IP address. Is that processing?

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Paul

5/12/23, 5:48 PM

@vidarlo This was what I was about to ask, and also state that IP traffic carries IP addresses - that's how all of it works. It isn't just analog if below some voltage it isn't registered or something, it is all digital, and the only way to figure out what to respond to is to analyze the packets. With "all ports closed" you may for example still be processing ARP and various ICMP, so it seems like the conditions need to be more carefully defined.

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vidarlo

5/12/23, 5:50 PM

@Paul Yep, and translating legalese into technical terms is not trivial. What GDPR lawmakers meant by processing should be interpreted by lawyers, not technicians.

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Mr. Question

5/12/23, 5:57 PM

@Paul @ vidarlo I edited my question. Should I also specify that I'm primarily concerned with servers, not routers? Although I'd like to know the answer for routers too. Or perhaps to ask what are the exact technical kinds of processing, not if processing occurs at all?

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vidarlo

5/12/23, 6:00 PM

Given the definition you use the answer is yes, it is processed and stored in memory. But since we still have TCP/IP based networks in Europe, after passing GDPR, I suspect you don't use the relevant definitions.

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Paul

5/12/23, 6:04 PM

@Mr.Question There are currently too many open-ended factors in your question to be valid for Server Fault. This site is designed for answering specific questions. What might be better is to provide a real-world scenario with configurations. A simple example why: Windows, Linux, and BSDs have completely different tools for configuring the network, and even different Linux and BSD variants will handle things differently. The short answer to your last question is: disable the network device.

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Paul

5/12/23, 6:08 PM

You might consider [starting here](https://explained-from-first-principles.com/internet/#packet-switching) to understand that Internet protocol is built on transferring packets of information that have the IP address included, and any networked device is going to have to analyze packets to at least determine who they are from, what they are for, and then what to do with them.

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Mr. Question

5/12/23, 6:14 PM

It all boils down to the fact that in everyday life a server/website owner should treat every incoming IP address as PII according to GDPR. I suppose my question is perhaps very general or broad but still valid. If a server processes incoming IP addresses even with all of its ports closed then an EU citizen cannot have a server without publishing his/her given name, surname, and personal address [according to](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/76830/is-it-obligatory-to-make-my-name-and-address-known-publicly-in-compliance-with-a) Art 13(1)(a) GDPR. This was my point here.

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vidarlo

5/12/23, 6:17 PM

@Mr.Question That still hinges on your definition of PII being correct, and your definition of processing being correct. I'm not certain about either premise. My impression is that you're basically soapboxing by asking a question.

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Mr. Question

5/12/23, 7:17 PM

@vidarlo Nobody is certain but the fees are so high that nobody wants to risk. Surely not me. Moreover, there are [sources](https://gdprhub.eu/Article_2_GDPR#.28c.29_Processing_by_a_Natural_Person_in_the_Course_of_Purely_Personal_or_Household_Activity) which confirm my conclusions. I just needed a technical answer. I received it. I know what **I will** do with it. It's not my fault nobody states clearly GDPR took away the freedom of speech. You know you can't have a personal blog (C-210/16) without publishing your name and address if you have visitors from the EU? Is this preaching? Or a fact?

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vidarlo

5/12/23, 7:31 PM

I am not a lawyer. That's why I don't attempt to answer that question. But I do note that we still have Internet in Europe, which we would not have if your interpretation is correct.

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Paul

5/12/23, 8:21 PM

@vidarlo I'm not from Europe so I don't know how the legal system works there, but it could be that if the law does not clearly state how it is violated, then the entire law can be struck down. For example, we didn't get into hardware and a NIC has a firmware and is doing all of the stuff the law discusses, all by itself, even when the server is "power off".

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Mr. Question

5/12/23, 8:52 PM

@vidarlo Perhaps it's off-topic but I still want to answer that. Once we had freedom of speech on the internet. Now we're left with freedom of comment if the comment section is enabled. Of course, nobody forbids you from using the internet. But if you infringe GDPR be prepared to pay [the fees](https://www.enforcementtracker.com/). It's like those restaurants in China/Japan which don't ban white people, they just require all guests to be Asians. If a private individual wants to have his/her own medium (a blog, FB page, YT channel) he/she is required by GDPR to publish his/her name and address.

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Mr. Question

5/12/23, 8:53 PM

@Paul I think GDPR creators knew exactly what they were doing: stop Big Tech from draining cash from the EU to the USA and passively silence EU people. In 2018 GDPR became immediately enforceable as law in all member states simultaneously. But there is no EU constitution. EU pushes for the primacy of European Union law. This all means that one cannot strike down the EU law. It's a fraud as heck. They knew computers must process IP addresses or be not connected to the internet at all. It's a very low-level architecture thing, hence my question, I wanted to know how deep this problem runs.

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vidarlo

5/12/23, 9:10 PM

@Mr.Question Well, ask the question at Law SE then! It's *not* a technical question. It's a legal one.

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Mr. Question

5/12/23, 9:36 PM

@vidarlo I did my best to divide this problem appropriately. People at Law SE don't know the details of IP address processing. They know the law. So I suppose my question here at SF was indeed technical and justified. I'm very grateful for being able to gain here information about ARP, ICMP and hardware/NIC/firmware. And a clear answer to my question: yes. Btw, I've already asked [a question](https://law.stackexchange.com/questions/76830/is-it-obligatory-to-make-my-name-and-address-known-publicly-in-compliance-with-a) on Law SE. That one was indeed not technical but legal so it ended up there.

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Ron Trunk

5/13/23, 7:47 PM

Short answer, Yes.

Ports are an addressing attribute of TCP and UDP transport protocols. While 98% of Internet traffic uses one or the other, not everything does. The traffic that doesn't use them does not have the concept of ports.

When a computer receives an IP packet, it has to check to see it the address is one that it accepts (i.e., if the packet is addressed to it). That happens before the computer checks whether the packet is carrying TCP or UDP protocol segment.

As an analogy, the IP packet is an envelope, perhaps with a (TCP) letter inside. The envelope is processed in order to be delivered to your house, without looking at the contents inside. In fact, the same process happens if there's a check in the envelope, cash, a dead frog, or even if the envelope is empty.

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Mr. Question

5/16/23, 7:39 PM

Too bad for the frogs. I wasn't sure if the computer was still dedicating (wasting) its resources to processing IP addresses of all incoming connections/packets, even if all its ports were closed. This is a profound feature/bug of the network architecture. In particular, taking into account the legal consequences (GDPR). If a network adapter processes IP addresses even though it is not recognized or enabled by the operating system, the only way to stop a computer from processing IP addresses is to physically and permanently disconnect it from the network (cable, Wi-Fi, or whatever).

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Ron Trunk

5/16/23, 8:32 PM

The important thing to remember is that processing IP packets and TCP segments are two separate processes.

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